In the beginning was the Word

Can it be that the Messiah is the Almighty Himself? This is what the churches teach us, that the Almighty came to earth and died for us, and they use the passage in John 1:1-3 to justify their teaching. But does John 1 really teach us that? Let us read the passage in the KJV Bible first (which is a translation) and then in a different translation that is more correct according to the original writings second. Then we can look at the wording and see if the statement can be true by comparing it to other passages in the Scriptures too.

”In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made” (John 1:1-3 KJV)

Now let us look at a more correct translation.

”In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Elohim, and the Word was Elohim. He was in the beginning with Elohim. All came to be through Him, and without Him not even one came to be that came to be” (John 1:1-3 The Scriptures).

One should notice that the difference between the two is that the KJV Bible, and also most other English translations, uses the term “God” and the more correct translation uses the term “Elohim” which is the actual Hebrew word. For those who do not know what Elohim means, it is a Hebrew word which is the plural form of the root word “Eloah” meaning either “mighty ones” or Mighty One” and can be used to refer to other things too, as we will see below.

Now to really understand what the true meaning of the text found in John 1:1-3, we need to first do a more in-depth study on the Hebrew word “Elohim.”

We have seen above from where the word comes from, but for what exactly is it used for in the Hebrew Scriptures?

The Hebrew word Elohim appears 2605 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. The great majority of the time when this word appears, it is translated as “God” in the English translations, in fact, 2366 times out of the 2606 (the word ‘God’ is not a correct translation of the word “Elohim” and should never be used). But that is not the only English word that is used to translate the Hebrew word “Elohim.” Let us have a look at a few other uses, or meanings, of the word “Elohim.”

”then his master shall bring him before Elohim (Judges), and shall bring him to the door, or to the doorpost, and his master shall pierce his ear with an awl. And he shall serve him forever” (Exodus 21:6). Here the word is used to speak of Judges, who bring the righteous judgments concerning any cases that are brought before them. They represent the judgments of the Almighty

“If the thief is not found, then the master of the house shall be brought before Elohim (Judges) to see whether he has put his hand into his neighbour’s goods” (Exodus 22:8). Here, once again, the word “Elohim” is used to speak of Judges.

“Yet You have made him a little less than Elohim (Messengers (Angels)), And have crowned him with esteem and splendour” (Psalm 8:5). Here the term Elohim is referring to Messengers of the Almighty.

”So יהוה (YHWH) said to Mosheh, ‘See, I have made you an elohim to Pharaoh, and Aharon your brother is your prophet’” (Exodus 7:1). Here Mosheh (Moses) is being referred to as an elohim to Pharaoh, which means that Mosheh is a mighty one to Pharaoh.

”And the sovereign said to her, “Do not be afraid. What did you see?” And the woman said to Sha’ul, “I saw a spirit (Elohim) coming up out of the earth.” (1 Sam 28:13). Here is where King Sha’ul went to a medium to call up the prophet Samuel. When the Medium saw the spirit of Samuel coming up from the grave, she referred to his spirit as Elohim.

So the Hebrew word Elohim can mean “Mighty One”, “mighty ones”, “judges”, “Messengers”, “spirit”, “great” and even called Mosheh, Elohim.

So now that we know that the Hebrew word “Elohim” does not always refer to the Almighty, we can start to understand what John 1:1-3 really means.

Let us then try and translate it correctly so that it stays perfectly in line with the rest of Scripture.

”In the beginning was the Word (Torah), and the Word (Torah) was with Elohim (the Almighty), and the Word (Torah) was Elohim (Mighty, Superior, Perfect). The Word (Torah) was in the beginning with Elohim (the Almighty). All came to be through the Word (Torah), and without the Word (Torah) not even one came to be that came to be” (John 1:1-3).

This Word that is being spoken of is the Word of the Almighty which is called the Torah. 4,000 years later, the Torah became flesh and walk upon this earth, and His name was Y’hoshua haMashiyach (The Messiah).

This Word is NOT the Almighty, but rather the Word of the Almighty that comes out of His Mouth. The Church falsely teaches that there is a Trinity where the Messiah is the Almighty. But that doctrine does not meet the requirements of the rest of Scripture. In fact, in order to teach this false doctrine, they need to falsely translate the Scriptures to say things that it does not really say. The Church has even added entire verses that never existed in the original writings to push the false Trinity doctrine.

John 1:1-3 makes it very clear that the Messiah is the Torah in the flesh and that He is NOT the Almighty, but rather the Son of the Almighty who is a being on His own.

Now, with this understanding of the word Elohim, we can understand Matthew 1:23

“See, a maiden shall conceive, and she shall give birth to a Son, and they shall call His Name Immanu’ĕl,” which translated, means, “Ěl with us” (Mat 1:23). This verse is also use a lot to try and justify the false Trinity doctrine. In the KJV Bible and the great majority of the other English translations of the Bible, it is translated as “God with us.”

We can now know that it is not a correct translation at all. If one wanted to translate it correctly, then it should either say, “Elohim with us” or “a Mighty One with us”

In order to really understand the Scriptures, you have to go back to the Hebrew text and read it with a Hebrew mindset as it was written in Hebrew by Hebrew’s. As soon as we “Westernize” the Scriptures, it looses most of its true meaning and actually changes the meaning of what should be taught.

If we truly want to know the truth of the Scriptures, then we really do need to start learning Hebrew. The English can NEVER convey what is written in the Hebrew text.

Is The KJV Bible the Word of the Almighty?

 When it comes to a belief system that is based on the writings of a Higher Power, the Almighty Himself, we desire to follow His writings alone. But are the writings of the Almighty still His writings when it has been edited and changed by men? Certainly not, in fact, it then becomes the writings of man instead and cannot be trusted as the writings or Word of the Almighty at all any more.

Many Churches and Christians all claim that the King James Bible is the authoritative Scriptures and the Word of the Almighty. They claim that it is by far the best and most accurate English translation of the original Scriptures and that it can be trusted and used as a reference for sound Scriptural doctrine. But is this true? Is the KJV an accurate account or translation of the original Scriptures?

The only way to answer these questions is to actually compare it to the original, or oldest manuscripts in existence today. For the “Old Testament” this is quite easy as the Hebrew text has been preserved from generation to generation and is 100% perfect (this is discussed below). Anyone who can read Hebrew, can therefore, easily compare the KJV or any other translation to the Hebrew text.

The “New Testament” is however a little harder, as the original Scriptures were destroyed or are being kept hidden. The Church claims that the “New Testament” was originally written in Greek, whereas all the facts and evidence point to a Hebrew original (but denied by the Church). This is however a topic on its own which I have covered in a previous post. There are however, ways to identify errors in translation. We do have the very early Greek manuscripts, the Aramaic text and we can compare the teachings to the Hebrew Tanakh (Old Testament) and we know that the Creator is not a liar that He should give instructions to last for 4,000 years and then change His mind.

Let us start with comparing the KJV with the Hebrew Tanakh (Old Testament)

The “Old Testament” of the KJV Bible is admittedly more accurate than the “New Testament” of the KJV Bible. This is because the “Old Testament” is somewhat based on the Hebrew Tanakh, where the “New Testament” is based on the Greek manuscripts which are not very reliable at all (I will explain this in more detail below). There are however still major errors in the KJV’s “Old Testament.”

Firstly, the term “Old Testament” is an incorrect term and is NOT at all Scriptural. Marcion, who is one of the early church fathers, coined the terms Old and New Testament. BUT: It is written that YHWH would bring a Renewed Covenant to His people and therefore the duty was on His people to extend the invitation of the Kingdom of Elohim to the rest of the world. By replacing the word “Covenant” with “Testament” Marcion and other pagan theologians wrestled Jeremiah 31:31-34 away from the foundational teachings of Y’hoshua and the Schlichim (taught ones). Most Christians had no access to the Tanakh (Hebrew Scriptures) and would not have know that Brit Chadashah means “RENEWED Covenant” and that Mashiyach would come to write Torah (Law) upon the hearts of his followers. By replacing the word “covenant” with “testament” and the word “renewed” with the word “new”, Marcion theologically divided the Messiah and his followers away from YHWH the Father and turned him into a self sustained deity that opposed the “Old Testament.” Everyone whoever used the terms “Old and New Testament” can thank Marcion the heretic for implanting such contrary values against the Unified and Eternal Word of the Living Almighty.

Polycarp, referred to Marcion as “the firstborn of the devil.” But, Marcion’s “judenrein” (Jew-free, also a well known phrase of Hitler) all-Gentile churches became very popular among early Gentile Christians, and one of the largest Christian denominations on Earth. Marcion was the inventor and/or the major contributor to dispensationalism, supercessionism, and replacement theology – all of which are altogether unscriptural and extremely popular among the vast majority of Christians today, preached in nearly every church.

The Name of the Almighty

The entire Scripture is full of how important and Set-Apart the Name of the Almighty is. It even goes as far as to say that there is no other name by which we can be saved. The Hebrew Tanakh has the Name of the Almighty written more than 6,000 times.

Now if the King James Translation, or any other translation, is truthful and correct, then it too must have the Name, or at least a transliteration (you can never translate a name) of the Name of the Almighty in the same places as those of the original Hebrew Tanakh. If it does not, then it is not the Word of the Almighty any more but rather the word of evil and corrupt men. The Word of the Almighty says that we are not allowed to add to or remove from what is originally written (Deut 4:2). It is also one of the Ten Commandments that we are not to bring His Name to naught.

Now if you have a look at the Hebrew Tanakh, you will not have to look very far to find the Name of the Almighty. The Name of the Almighty looks like this, “יהוה“, but the first thing you notice when you see His Name, is that it is not an English Name, but rather a Hebrew Name.

Now when you do a comparison between the Hebrew Scriptures and the KJV translation, you will see that almost every place that the Name of the Almighty is written, the KJV translation uses the word “LORD.” Now is the Name of the Almighty in English, “LORD”? Is the word “LORD” even a name at all? A little research will tell you that it is not a name at all, but a title that is also given to many men too and has a very dodgy pagan origin, where it actually originates from the name of a pagan deity.

So we can already see that the KJV translation has taken the most important Name in the existence of the Universe, the only Name by which we can be saved, out of its translation and replaced it with something that is hated by the Almighty. Is this not taking away from the Word which is forbidden by the Almighty Himself?

God

And what about the name “God”? Once again, the word “God” was not a name at all, but is rather a term used by other pagan beliefs to refer to their own deity. It later on became a name given to a specific pagan deity. Now ask yourself the following question, “can the Almighty be referred to by the same title that originated from the title for pagan deities?”

The Hebrew Scriptures have the word “Elohim” (Mighty One) in the places where the KJV translation has the word “God.” Once again, the KJV is not a correct translation here, where the translators placed their own words that do not mean the same.

In fact, there is a mention of “God” or “Gawd” in the Hebrew Scriptures, “But you are those who forsake יהוה (YHWH), who forget My set-apart mountain, who prepare a table for Gad (Gawd, God), and who fill a drink offering for Meni” (Isaiah 65:11).

Wow, the Scriptures actually say that those who follow after “God” (who is the pagan deity of good fortune) are those who forsake the Almighty. This is not just a translation error, but rather a direct contradiction of the Word of the Almighty. It is also written, “And in all that I have said to you take heed. And make no mention of the name of other mighty ones, let it not be heard from your mouth” (Exodus 23:13).

Let us look at some more errors

There are some more errors in the KJV’s “Old Testament” but none that are as critical as the errors spoken of above but, they are however still errors and are not Scriptural and changes the meaning of the Almighty's Word.

Eze 20:25 (KJV) Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they should not live;”

Eze 20:25 (Original) “And I also gave them up to laws that were not good, and right-rulings by which they would not live”

Here the KJV suggests that the Almighty gave the evil statutes to the people, where the original text says that He gave them up to the laws that the people turned to on there own.

There are many more differences between the KJV and the Hebrew text, but I am not going to post every single one of them here as we get the idea and it would be a lot of reading.

Now what about the Brit Chadashah (Renewed Covenant) (New Testament)

Every single scholar of the “KJV New Testament” agrees that it is based on the Greek manuscripts which they ignorantly believe to be the original manuscripts.

The KJV “New Testament” translation has MANY more differences and errors in it compared to its “Old Testament” translation. This is because its “Old Testament” is based, somewhat, on the original Hebrew, where the “New Testament” is based on many many Greek manuscripts (about 13,000) that all differ from one another. The problem with this is that the Greek is not the original as the Renewed Covenant was not originally written in Greek, but rather in Hebrew.

Let us have a closer look at these Greek manuscripts:

Both the Hebrew Torah and the “New Testament” contain approximately the same number of words. Which would you expect to be more successful in preserving the accuracy of a text?... The Christian New Testament, for several reasons of course.

Firstly, the Christian “New Testament” is about 1700 (or even more) years younger than the Torah. Secondly, the Christians haven’t gone through nearly as much exile and dislocation as the Jews. Thirdly, Christianity has always had a central authority (the Vatican) to ensure the "accuracy" of their text.

What are the results? The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible, a book written to prove the validity of the New Testament, says: “A study of 150 Greek [manuscripts] of the Gospel of Luke has revealed more than 30 000 different readings… It is safe to say that there is not one sentence in the New Testament in which the [manuscript] is wholly uniform.”

Other scholars report there are some 200 000 variants in the existing manuscripts of the New Testament, representing about 400 variant readings, which cause doubt about textual meaning; 50 of these are of great significance which have contradictory meanings to one another.

So how can we know which one, if any, is the correct one? Which one, if any, can we rely on to be the truth?

The Renewed Covenant is where the testimony and fulfillment of the prophecy of the Messiah is recorded. Let us have a look at the verse which speaks of the giving of the Name of the Messiah when He was born, “And she shall give birth to a Son, and you shall call His Name יהושע (Y’hoshua) for He shall save His people from their sins” (Mat 1:21). Now the KJV has the same statement but has the name “Jesus” as the name of the Messiah.

The question we need to ask ourselves, if we want to be honest, is if the KJV and all the other English Bibles that have the name of the Messiah as “Jesus” is correct. If so, then the name “Jesus” has to mean something like “for He shall save His people from their sins” as the verse implies.

In order to determine the meaning of the name “Jesus”, we need to go to its origin and find its meaning. Every single scholar admits the fact that the name “Jesus” comes from the Greek “Iesous” which once again originates from paganism, and NOT from the Hebrew Y’hoshua. I have covered this topic in much more detail in a previous post.

The Name Y’hoshua means “YHWH is our salvation” which fits one hundred percent with what is written in Matthew 1:21.

This difference is a major error that is absolutely the opposite of the Will and the Word of the Almighty. 

What about the name “Christ”?

Here is another example of a word being substituted by another that has the total opposite meaning as to what it should be. The Greek text has the word “Messias” for the word “anointed one” in John 1:41 and John 4:25. Why then does the KJV and other English translations have the Greek word “Christos” all the other times where the word “anointed one” appears?

Why does the KJV Bible use the Greek word “Messias” which is a valid Greek word that means “anointed one” in only a very few places, and the Greek word “Christos”, which does not have the exact same meaning, in the rest of the places? One must once again look for the origin of the word “Christos” from which the title “Christian originates from. If you start investigating the origin of the word “Christos” you will quickly find that it comes from “Chrestos” (the Sun-deity Osiris). Read here to learn more on this topic.

Other Errors

There are many other major errors and additions into the Christian Bible that do not even exist in the oldest Greek manuscripts, never mind the original writings. Some of these are, for example, John 7: 53 – 8:11 where it speaks of a woman caught in adultery that was brought to the Messiah. This event never happened and does not appear in the Aramaic text which is much, much older than the Greek, it is not even found in the earliest Greek manuscripts either. This portion was inserted many years later after the original writing of John. And yet, a large portion of the Christian faith is based on this small piece of writing.

How many times have you heard or even yourself quoted the phrase, “He who is without sin, cast the first stone”? This section is NOT Scriptural at all and cannot be found anywhere else in Scripture. Why was it added? In order to justify that adultery is okay and easily forgivable… do yourself a favor and go see what the Almighty thinks of adultery, and then see if the Messiah agrees with His Father on this point in this section.

Another major error in the KJV Bible that is not found in any other English Bible, even though they are also based on the Greek manuscripts, is found in Acts 12:4.

KJV Bible: "And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people"

Better Translation: "And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Passover to bring him forth to the people"

Here is a major error that does not even match any of the Greek manuscripts at all. The Greek word used for “Passover” is “pascha”. Every other English translation of the Bible has the word “Passover” here. It is only the KJV that has perverted it and used the word “Easter” instead of “Passover”. Now why did the translators do that? And is it correct? If not, then it is not an accurate translation and NOT the Word of the Almighty, but rather the word of men instead.

Easter is the Saxon's fertility deity called “Eostre”. Now the Passover is a testimony of the Messiah Himself. It is by His blood that we are passed over by the Messenger of death. To substitute this wonderful testimony of our Beloved Messiah, with the celebrations of an evil pagan deity that the Almighty hates, is pure evil. I would have no problem with burning a book that does such a thing.

If you would like to know more about Easter… then click here

Another major addition is that of Mark 16:9-20. If you compare it with that of the oldest Greek manuscripts, you will notice that it does not exist until the more modern Greek manuscripts.

Here is another example of a translation error proving that the translator did not have any knowledge of the Scriptures at all.

Hebrews 4:8-9

KJV Bible: "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God"

Better Translation: "For if Joshua (or rather Y’hoshua) had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a keeping of a Sabbath to the people of Elohim"

But even the Greek word for this "rest" is "sabbatismos", which means "Sabbath keeping".

This verse above actually proves two very important points. Firstly, the translator was not very well versed in the Scriptures at all. He did not know of the second point which is that “Joshua’s”  name in the Hebrew Tanakh is actually spelled as “יהושע” which is the exact same spelling and pronunciation of the Name as that of the Messiah, which is pronounced as Y’hoshua. The above verse is speaking of Y’hoshua son of Nun, where the translator ignorantly put in what he believed to be “Jesus”.

There are so many other errors in the KJV “New Testament” that it would take a very long time to record them here.

There are also many words that have been changed that originate from paganism rather than from the original writings, some of these words and names are, “Christ, holy, grace, glory, church and even the cross” which are all an abomination to the Almighty.

How many errors can be found in the Hebrew Torah?

 

Now for interest sake, we had a look at how many Greek variations existed in the “New Testament” above. Now if we are to compare the Greek “New Testament” with that of the Hebrew Torah, we can start to see which one is the most accurate of the two. Keeping in mind that the Greek “New Testament” contains over 200 000 different variations.

The Hebrew Torah contains approximately the same number of words as the “New Testament.” How many letters are there in the Hebrew Torah? There are 304 805 letters (or approximately 79 000 words).

If you were to guess, how many letters of these 304 805 do you think are in question (or questionable)? (most people guess anywhere from 25 to 1 000 letters.)

Maintaining the accuracy of any document as ancient and as large as the Torah is very challenging even under the best of circumstances.

But, consider that throughout history, Jewish communities were subject to widespread persecutions and exile. Over the last 2000 years, Jews have been spread to the four corners of the world, from Yemen to Poland, from Australia to Alaska.

Other historical factors make the accurate transmission of the Torah all the more difficult. For example, the destruction of the Temple 1900 years ago saw the dissolution of the Sanhedrin, the Jewish central authority which traditionally would unify the Jewish people in the case of any disagreements.

Let’s investigate the facts as we have them today. If we collect the oldest Torah scrolls and compare them, we can see if any garbling exist, and if so, how much.

The fact is, that after all the trials and tribulations, communal dislocations and persecutions, only the Yemenite Torah scrolls contain any difference from the rest of world Jewry. For hundreds of years, the Yemenite community was not part of the global checking system, and a total of nine letter-differences are found in their scrolls.

These are all spelling differences. In no case do they change the meaning of the word. For example, how would you spell the word “colour”? in America, it’s spelled C-O-L-O-R. But in England (and South Africa), it’s spelled with a “u”, C-O-L-O-U-R.

Such is the nature of the few spelling differences between Torah scrolls today. The results over thousands of years are remarkable. And these differences are only found in the Yemenite Torah Scrolls.

The Torah has nine spelling variants – with absolutely no effect on the meaning of the words. The Christian Bible has over 200 000 variants and in 400 instances the variants change the meaning of the TEXT.

These letters of the Hebrew Torah were employed by the Almighty in creating the world, and it is through them that He sustains it. The deletion of even one letter of this sustaining force therefore threatens the existence of the world.

Carefully guarding the words of the Torah has been a Jewish priority throughout the centuries.

Writing a Torah Scroll

To eliminate any chance of human error, the Talmud enumerates more than 20 factors mandatory for a Torah scroll to be considered “kosher”. This is the Torah’s built-in security system. Should any one of these factors be lacking, it does not possess the sanctity of a Torah scroll, and is not to be used for a public Torah reading.

The meticulous process of hand-copying a scroll takes about 2000 hours (a full-time job for one year). Throughout the centuries, Jewish scribes have adhered to the following guidelines:

• A Torah Scroll is disqualified if even a single letter is added.
• A Torah Scroll is disqualified if even a single letter is deleted.
• The scribe must be a learned, pious Jew, who has undergone special training and certification.
• All materials (parchment, ink, quill) must conform to strict specifications, and be prepared specifically for the purpose of writing a Torah scroll.
• The scribe may not write even one letter into a Torah scroll by heart. Rather, he must have a second, kosher scroll opened before him at all times.
• The scribe must pronounce every word out loud before copying it from the correct text.
• Every letter must have sufficient white space surrounding it. If one letter touched another in any spot, it invalidates the entire scroll.
• If a single letter was so marred that it cannot be read at all, or resembles another letter (whether the defect is in the writing, or is due to a hole, tear or smudge), this invalidates the entire scroll. Each letter must be sufficiently legible so that even an ordinary schoolchild could distinguish it from other, similar letters.
• The scribe must put precise spaces between words, so that one word will not look like two words, or two words look like one word.
• The scribe must not alter the design of the sections, and must conform to particular line-lengths and paragraph configurations.

A Torah scroll in which any mistake has been found, cannot be used, and must be fixed within 30 days, or buried.

Which one can then be considered the Word of the Almighty?

Now the Christian church is based mostly on the supposed teachings of “Paul”. The Church claims that Paul taught that the “Gentile Believers” do not have to keep the Torah of the Almighty anymore. They claim that the Torah of the Almighty was nailed to the “cross” which is a gross perversion and is proof that they are totally ignorant of the Scriptures and the writings of Paul.

So let us see what “Paul” considers to be Scripture and what he teaches about it, “and that from a babe you have known the Set-apart Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for deliverance through belief in Messiah יהושע (Y’hoshua). All Scripture is breathed by Elohim and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for setting straight, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of Elohim might be fitted, equipped for every good work” (2 Tim 3:15-17)

Now what are these Set-apart Scriptures that he is speaking of in this verse? Did the “New Testament” exist when he wrote this letter? Is it even possible that he could be referring to the “New Testament” or even any of his own letters, which make up the majority of the “New Testament” as Scripture? Absolutely not!

Paul stated above to the people that from when they were very young, they have known the Set-apart Scriptures. He is referring to the Hebrew Tanakh which is the only book that can ever be considered as the Word of the Almighty. Let us have a look at another letter that Paul wrote, “For whatever was written before was written for our instruction, that through endurance and encouragement of the Scriptures we might have the expectation” (Rom 15:4).

Paul is once again making it very clear that the Hebrew Tanakh are the Scriptures and is there for our instruction. The fact of the matter is that the Scriptures (Hebrew Tanakh) teaches us how to love the Almighty, it also teaches us how to love one another. The Hebrew Tanakh teaches us who the Messiah is and also what His role and duty is, “יהושע (Y’hoshua) said to them, “Did you never read in the Scriptures, ‘The stone which the builders rejected has become the chief corner-stone. This was from יהוה (YHWH), and it is marvellous in our eyes?” (Mat 21:42). It teaches us everything we need to know in regards to Salvation and the forgiveness of sins.

Notice above how the Messiah Himself refers to the Hebrew Tanakh as “the Scriptures” and how it refers to Him. Here is another verse that shows the Messiah referring to the Hebrew Tanakh as the Scriptures, “And יהושע (Y’hoshua) answering, said to them, “You go astray, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of Elohim”” (Mat 22:29).

I could go on and quote all the places in the “New Testament” and all the people therein who testify that the Hebrew Tanakh is the Scriptures, but that would take too much time and space here.

The fact of the matter is that the “New Testament” is not considered to be Scripture at all, but is rather just a testimony of the fulfillment of prophecy and letters of encouragement to fellow believers, who have been scattered, for them to stay in the study of the Scriptures.

Therefore, the Word of the Almighty is the Hebrew Tanakh and the Hebrew Tanakh alone. Anyone who speaks otherwise is speaking evil and denying the Word of the Almighty.

And anyone who does not subject themselves to the Instruction of the Hebrew Tanakh does not love the Almighty and there is no truth in them.

Do miracles determine a belief system to be true?

There are many many people who follow the Christian faith, and will not consider any other belief, because they have witnessed a “miracle” performed by a Christian minister or missionary or evangelist etc. at one time or another. Some have even witnessed many “miracles.” But do miracles prove a certain belief system to be the true faith of the Almighty?

The Christian Church of today, especially the “super” churches, are all about performing miracles in order to con their followers to throw their hard earned money at the church. There are even super rich Christian television networks, like TBN, that preach to the public in every single show or sermon, that they should give their money to them, even if it is their last cent. Then they claim that if they do, then a “wonderful” miracle will happen and that the people who give money to them, will be financially blessed or healed of a physical ailment. This all is a load of rubbish as these people take the last little bit of money from old ladies and drive around in the most expensive cars and live in the most expensive houses, and even own multiple houses, and some even have their own private jets too, like Kennith and Gloria Copeland and still continue to fool the poor people into supporting their wealthy lifestyle. What do these faithful followers of theirs get in return? Absolutely nothing, not even a miracle.

There are however some genuine miracles that have been performed by Christian leaders. Does this, however, prove that Christianity is the true faith of the Almighty? In order to answer this, we need to see if the Christian faith is based upon the Word of the Almighty. The litmus test to see if anyone is in the true faith of the Messiah, is to see if that person walks as the Messiah walked. “For this is favour, if because of conscience toward Elohim anyone bears up under grief, suffering unrighteously. For what credit is there in enduring a beating when you sin? But if you suffer for doing good and you endure, this finds favour with Elohim. For to this you were called, because Messiah also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that you should follow His steps” (1 Peter 2:19-21). Also read here, “The one who says he stays in Him ought himself also to walk, even as He walked” (1 John 2:6).

Are the Christians following in the footsteps of the Messiah? Let us have a look at a few examples of what the Messiah did, and then compare them to the Christians and see if they are the same.

1) The Messiah - wore tzitzit (tassels)

“and begged Him to let them only touch the tzitzit of His garment. And as many as touched it were completely healed” (Mat 14:36)

“came from behind and touched the tzitzit of His garment. And immediately her flow of blood stopped” (Luke 8:44)

1) The Christian – Does not wear tzitzit

In fact, whenever I see one of my old Christian friends, and they see my tzitzit, they always ask me, “what is that for?” This is because they have never been taught the true Messiah. If the Messiah came and walked into a church, they would not recognize him, and would actually say that He is one of those Jews, who’s Torah does not apply to them at all.

2) The Messiah – Kept the 7^th day Sabbath

“At that time יהושע (Yehoshua) went through the grain fields on THE Sabbath. And His taught ones were hungry, and began to pluck heads of grain, to eat” (Mat 12:1).

“And pray that your flight does not take place in winter or on the Sabbath” (Mat 24:20). Here the Messiah is speaking of the end times, which has not happened yet, that he is saying that THE Sabbath is still in effect. That when the time comes that the believers in the Messiah have to flee, that we should pray that it not be on THE Sabbath.

“And they went into Kephar Naḥum, and immediately on the Sabbath He went into the congregation and taught” (Mark 1:21)

“And Sabbath having come, He began to teach in the congregation. And many who heard Him were astonished, saying, “Where did He get all this? And what wisdom is this which is given to Him, that such miracles are done through His hands?” (Mark 6:2). It is very clear that the Messiah kept the Sabbath day.

2) The Christian – Does not keep the Sabbath

In fact, the Christian teaches that the Sabbath does not apply to them any more and that they have been set free from it. WHAT??? They have been set free from rest? Is not the Sabbath a delight? I would hate to be set free from a delightful rest.

The Church admits that they have changed the day of rest from the 7^th day to the 1^st day of the week in commemoration of the worship of the Sun (Sun-Day) and also to show the Churches authority above the Scriptures. They do not even hide this fact and have arrogantly published this and even brag about this.

Would you rather follow the sun-worship 1^st day, or the day that the Almighty has established and that the Messiah Himself kept and taught us to keep?

3) The Messiah – ate only clean (kosher) food.

We all know that the Messiah never committed any sin. This means that he kept His Fathers Torah (Instruction) perfectly. We read in Lev 11 about what foods are clean and which ones are not clean. The Messiah never ate anything animal that is unclean.

We can know this as we have a record of one of His followers (disciples) that walked with Him daily, that tells us that he has never eaten anything unclean. “But Kĕpha said, “Not at all, Master! Because I have never eaten whatever is common or unclean.”” (Act 10:14). Here Peter is saying that he never ate anything unkosher (unclean). This is even the time that he walk with the Messiah. All the followers of the Messiah will never eat anything that is unclean according to the Word of the Almighty, Leviticus 11.

3) The Christian – Eats unclean (unkosher) food.

The Christian learns by his church that we do not have to follow the Instruction of the Almighty anymore. They do however have to follow the instruction of the church. Shouldn’t this alone raise suspicion?

The church teaches that only “God” can change His Laws and that He gave Peter the permission to eat unclean foods, that are detrimental to our health and cause many deceases like cancer. They quote Acts 10, but then fail to read further where it gives the description of the vision given to Peter. It was never intended for him to eat unclean meat. Read more about that here.

4) The Messiah – Prayed using the Name of His Father YHWH

The Messiah came to make known the Name of His Father. The Jewish practice of those days, and still today, is to keep the true Name of the Almighty secret out of fear of using it in vain. The Messiah never subscribed to Jewish traditions, but rather kept His Fathers Word where it is written, “And Elohim said further to Mosheh, “Thus you are to say to the children of Yisraĕl, ‘יהוה (YHWH) Elohim of your fathers, the Elohim of Aḇraham, the Elohim of Yitsḥaq, and the Elohim of Ya’aqoḇ, has sent me to you. This is My Name forever, and this is My remembrance to all generations.” (Exodus 3:15).

4) The Christian – Does not know the Name of the Almighty, prays to pagan idols.

The Christians place their trust and faith in the name of pagan idols every time they pray in the name of “God” or in the name of “Jesus”. Both these names are of the names of pagan idols (click on the names highlighted to see where they come from).

The Name of the Messiah is “Yehoshua.” The name “Jesus” is not a translation of Yehoshua, but comes from the Greek Iesous, which originates from the Egyptian Sun-deity called “Isis”

The name “God” is of just as bad a origin as the name “Jesus”

The reason for the Christian not knowing the Name of the Almighty and His Son the Messiah is because all the English Bibles have substituted the Name of the Almighty and His Son the Messiah and many other names and words with those of pagan idols.

English is a very young language and only came to be after the joining of the true faith and paganism from the time of Constantine in the year 321 AD. He started to create Christianity as we know it to be today and hid the truth from the people. (Also read about thefounders of the all gentile church here).

“And there is no deliverance in anyone else, for there is no other Name under the heaven given among men by which we need to be saved.” (Act 4:12). Here we can see that we cannot be saved by the name of “Jesus”, but only by the true Name of the Almighty.

5) The Messiah – Kept all the moedim (appointed times and feasts)

“And the festival of the Yehuḏim was near, the Festival of Booths” (John 7:2). Here we can see that the Messiah did attend the feast of Sukkot.

Like we have seen from above, the Messiah never sinned once. This means he kept all the moedim that the Almighty teaches us that we must do (Leviticus 23). We cannot know or understand salvation if we do not keep all the appointed times of the Almighty.

Also notice that sin is described by breaking the Torah of the Almighty. Is it not taught by the Messiah that we must go and “sin no more?”

5) The Christian – Keeps all the pagan feasts and none of the moedim of the Almighty

The Christian does not keep any of the moedim of the Almighty. In fact, the Christian rather keeps all the pagan feasts and celebrations. Many do not even know this, but blindly follow the Church into their own destruction.

Christmas, Easter, Valentines Day, New years day, Birthday celebrations. All these are pagan celebrations and are an abomination to the Almighty. All of them originate from Sun-worship, which is forbidden by the Word of the Almighty.

Now I can go on and on about the many teachings and practices and traditions that the Christians follow to prove that Christianity is not the faith of the Messiah as they do not do as the Messiah did. The Messiah never came and died for us so that we may continue in sin. What was an abomination to the Almighty before, is still an abomination to Him now.

So now we can see that the Christian faith does not follow the teachings of the Messiah. But what about the miracles that happen within the church? Let us read what the Word of YHWH says about this, “When there arises among you a prophet or a dreamer of dreams, and he shall give you a sign or a wonder, and the sign or the wonder shall come true, of which he has spoken to you, saying, ‘Let us go after other mighty ones – which you have not known – and serve them” (Deut 13:1-2). Here we see that even false prophets and dreamers of dreams (those who receive “divine” visions) can perform miracles too. Does that make them righteous? Let us carry on and see what the Almighty says, do not listen to the words of that prophet or that dreamer of dreams, for יהוה (YHWH) your Elohim is trying you to know whether you love יהוה (YHWH) your Elohim with all your heart and with all your being” (Deut 13:3). Okay, now we can see that that person who is performing those miracles that does not follow the Messiah should not be listened to. It is also a test for those who do follow the Word of the Almighty, that they know His Word and can see when someone is not teaching them truth, even though he performs miracles. It is to see whether they love the Almighty to do and follow His Word, or will they fall for and follow other doctrines that are not taught by the Almighty or His Messiah.

So what then are those, who desire to do the Will of the Almighty, to do? Walk after יהוה (YHWH) your Elohim and fear Him, and guard His commands and obey His voice, and serve Him and cling to Him” (Deut 13:4). Here we clearly see that we need to fear the Almighty and guard to obey all His Commandments and obey His voice.

What then should be done of that false prophet that teaches us to follow the ways of Sun-worship? And that prophet or that dreamer of dreams is put to death, because he has spoken apostasy against יהוה (YHWH) your Elohim – who brought you out of the land of Mitsrayim and redeemed you from the house of bondage – to make you stray from the way in which יהוה (YHWH) your Elohim commanded you to walk. Thus you shall purge the evil from your midst” (Deut 13:5). The Almighty hates the people who teaches others to turn away from His Instructions. He says that they are evil and need to be put to death. Now we cannot go around and put every Christian preacher to death, as that would land us in jail. However, they will stand in front of the Almighty one day and will have to try and explain why they turned so many people away from Him, and to their destruction.

We should not fellowship with such evil people nor should we stand for or follow anything that they teach, as it will be turning us away from obeying the Word of the Almighty.

Now many will say that this only applied to the “Old Testament” times and does not apply to them any more. Is it not written that the Almighty is the same yesterday, today and forever? But let us also read what is written in the “New Testament” for those who ignorantly throw the Word of the Almighty (Old Testament) out the window, “For false messiahs and false prophets shall arise, and they shall show great signs and wonders, so as to lead astray, if possible, even the chosen ones” (Mat 24:24). This does apply to today.

Let me leave you with a piece out of the “New Testament” that perfectly describes the Christian Church of today and of the English Bible too. “But there also came to be false prophets among the people, as also among you there shall be false teachers, who shall secretly bring in destructive heresies, and deny the Master who bought them, bringing swift destruction on themselves. And many shall follow their destructive ways, because of whom the way of truth shall be evil spoken of” (2 Peter 2:1-2). The Christians speak evil of those who are keeping and obeying the Word of the Almighty. They even say that the Torah, which is the Word of the Almighty, is a curse. Is this not speaking evil of the Almighty Himself?

Also realize that the person who wrote the above verse also kept the Torah of the Almighty, as did Shaul (Paul), who wrote the majority of the “New Testament,” as did all the disciples and followers of the Messiah. Those who do not keep the Torah of the Almighty are those who are teaching a different doctrine to the Messiah and are the evil prophets spoken of above.

Another thing, if we are to have a relationship with the Almighty and His Son, that also means that we need to love Him. What are we taught about loving the Almighty? “He who possesses My commands and guards them, it is he who loves Me. And he who loves Me shall be loved by My Father, and I shall love him and manifest Myself to him.” (John 14:21). So only those who guard to keep the Commands love the Almighty and are loved by Him.

Origin of the word “God”

A prophecy for the end-time is given in Isa 65:11 wherein our Mighty One warns of the apostasy of His people, “But you are those who forsake YHWH… who prepare a table for Gad, and who furnish a drink offering for Meni.” All commentators agree that Gad is a pagan deity, and so is Meni. Gad is usually interpreted as the well-known Syrian or Canaanite deity of “Good Luck” or “Fortune,” and Meni the deity of “Destiny.” This Gad is written in the Hebrew as GD (gimel dalet), but the Massoretes afterwards vowel-pointed it, adding an “a,” to give us “Gad.” However, we find other references in Scripture to a similar deity, if not the same one, also spelt GD in the Hebrew text but this time vowel-pointed to read “Gawd” or “God” (Josh 11:17, 12:7, 13:5), where we find “Baal-Gawd” or “Baal-God,” according to the vowel-pointed Massoretic Hebrew text. This Baal-Gawd or Baal-God was obviously a place named after their deity.

The Astrologers identified Gad with Jupitar, the Sky-deity or the Sun-deity. Other sources of research also testify of “Gad” being the Sun-deity. Rev Alexander Hislop wrote, “There is reason to believe that Gad refers to the Sun-god… The name Gad… is applicable to Nimrod, whose general character was that of a Sun-god… Thus then, if Gad was the ‘Sun-divinity’, Meni was very naturally regarded as ‘The Lord Moon.’”

Keil and Delitzsch, Commentaries on the Old Testament, comments on Isaiah 65:11, “There can be no doubt, therefore, that Gad, the god of good fortune… is Baal (Bel) as the god of good fortune… this is the deified planet Jupiter… Gad is Jupiter… Mene is Dea Luna… Rosenmuller very properly traces back the Septuagint rendering to this Egyptian view, according to which Gad is the Sun-god and Meni the lunar goddess as the power of fate.”

Isaiah 65:11 tells us then that YHWH’s people have forsaken Him and in the end-time are found to be serving Gad, the Sun-deity as the deity of “Good Luck,” and Meni, the Moon-deity of “Destiny.”

As pointed out above, this Gad (GD with an “a” vowel pointing) is probably the same deity as we read of in the book of Joshua, GD with a vowel-pointing of “aw” or “o,” making it “Gawd” or “God.” The vocal-pointing of the Massoretes cannot always be relied on, but we can rely on the Hebrew Scriptures before the vocal pointings was done. It could well be that GD of Isaiah 65:11 is the same as the “Gawd” or “God” of the book of Joshua. But, let us not try to establish a fact on an assumption. Let us rather do some research on the word “God.”

The word God (or god), like the Greek Theos (or theos) is used in our versions as a title, a generic name, usually. It translates the Hebrew Elohim (or elohim), El (or el), and Eloah. However, in quite a few places it is used as the substitute for the Tetragrammaton, the Name of our Father, e.g. Matthew 4:4 (quoted from Deut 8:3), Romans 4:3 (quoted from Gen 15:6) etc. If the word God is then used as a substitute for the Name, it must be accepted that the word God has become a name again.

How and when did this title or name become adopted into our modern languages? Encyclopedia Britannica, 11^th edition, says, “GOD – the common Teutonic word for a personal object of religious worship… applied to all those superhuman beings of the heathen mythologies. The word ‘god’ on the conversion of the Teutonic races to Christianity was adopted as the name of the one Supreme Being…”

Webster’s Twentieth Century Dictionary, Unabridged, 1^st edition, says, “The word is common to Teutonic tongues… It was applied to heathen deities and later, when the Teutonic peoples were converted to Christianity, the word was elevated to the Christian sense.”

James Hastings, Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics, vol. 6, pg 302, reads, “After the conversion of the Teutons to Christianity the word came to be applied also to the Christian Deity… Its etymology and its original meaning are obscure, and have been much debated.”

J.G.R. Forlong, Encyclopedia of Religions, on “God,” says, “It is remarkable that philologists are unable to decide the origin of this familiar Teutonic word.” Once again, we are strongly suspicious of the rulers of darkness or the Prince of Darkness, having succeeded, once again, in hiding yet another work of darkness.

There is much confusion in the European languages between the words gud (good) and god. The Scandinavian languages, like the old Anglo-Saxon, called god gud and called gud (good) god. Calling good god and god gud is bad enough to confuse us. Even worse is that the Old Netherlands languages regarded god as an idol and gud as the correct deity! Jacob Grimm recorded this for us, as well as Julius Pokorny and Jan de Vries.

This inconsistency of spelling confuses us, as it must have confused the people in those early centuries who were still completely or partially ignorant of the True Mighty One and His Name. Jacob Grimm asserts that this was done because of fear, “Such a fear may arise from two causes: a holy name must not be abused, or an unholy dreaded name, e.g., that of the devil, has to be softened down by modifying its form,” and then gives examples.

Other scholars have explained that the names of national deities were either hid, or modified, in order to prevent their enemies getting hold of these names – enemies who might use it as a magic word against them.

Another reason for this changing of spelling of idols’ names was the ritual of abrenuntiatio, i.e. a solemn renouncing of the names of major deities, whenever a pagan person became converted to Christianity. One of the three major idols of the Teutonic tribes was called Saxnot. It is well documented how this name was renounced and later on came back in a disguised form, Saxneat. We even found that some idols’ names were spelt 17 different ways.

We found further evidence that “gott” or “god” was not only a title, but used as a name too, amongst the Teutonic tribes. Simrock discovered songs wherein “Gott” was used as a Beiname for the deity Odin. In German, Beiname means: surname (or epithet, or appellation).

We further found “Goda” as a proper name of an idol. Moreover, the same author relates how Woden, “The name of the highest god,” also called Woten and Odan, was also called Godan. The Teutonic masculine deities each had its female consort or counterpart. Thus we read that this deity’s female consort was frau Gode. It is commonly known that our Wednesday was named after Woden or Wotan. In Westphalian we find this day being called Godenstag.

Although the majority of dictionaries do not acknowledge it, there are some that frankly admit it and clearly state that the origin of the word “god” is uncertain or unknown. Why uncertain or unknown? What was there to hide?

Other dictionaries propose that the most likely origin of the word “god” is the Indo-Germanic (or Sanskrit) word huta. Some dictionaries prefer to spell this ancient word ghuta. Huta (or Ghuta) was of course an appellative or another name for Indra, Indian Sun-deity, as the more comprehensive dictionaries duly admit. We do accept this, but would be happier to find a word with an “o” instead of a “u.”

In the Indo-Germanic dictionaries there is only one word which resembles the word “god,” in fact, it is pronounced exactly the same. This is the word ghodh. Dictionaries which are not Indo-Germanic, usually spell this word with an “a.” Julius Pokorny, Indogermanisches Etomologisches Wörterbuch, vol. 1, pg 423 says the word ghodh means: union, also sexual union or mating. He says that from this root the following Germanic (European) word came forth: gaden, gatten, gaten, g????d, gader, guot, gut, g????oda, godina, etc.

Sanders-Wulfling, Handwörterbuch der deutschen Sprache, pg. 234, as well as Grimm, Deutsches Wörterbuch, under “gatten,” say that gatten means, to mate. In Dutch this word is commonly used for a marriage partner, a consort, a spouse. This word is also found in the English “beget, begat, begotten.”

Prof. Dr. Eduard Kuck, Luneburger Wörterbuch, vol. 1, pg 594, admits that Gott, got, gode, gade, god and guth (gud) are all the same word! Note well: God is the same as gade! Schiller & L3bben, Mittelniederdeutsches Wörterbuch, says the same on pg 135: got, gode, gade and Gott are the same!

A third witness is that of Wossidlo-Teuchert, Mecklenburgisches Wörterbuch, vol. 3, pg 231, which confirms this and says that the word Gott was anciently known as Gade.

Dr. Arnold Walder, Germanisches Urzeit, pg 300, says that the following words are the same or related: the German GUT, the German GOTT, the Aramaic GAD-a, the Arabian GUD, and also the Greek AGATH-os. Oskar Schade, Altdeutsches Wörterbuch, vol. 1, pg 342 and 359, still tries to distinguish between gut (gud) and got (gott, god), but the lists of variants of these two words are virtually interchangeable!

The evidence is clear: Although the two concepts “good” and “god” developed in two different directions, the one European nation called good “god” and called god “gud,” while another nation called them vice versa. This confusion or interchangeability between the words, as well as the evidence from the above-named sources, brings us to the conclusion that these words had a common origin, namely the concept of “good,” which in turn originated from the concept “union” or “mating,” namely the word ghodh, as revealed to us in Julius Pokorny’s dictionary.

Remember: the Hebrew word “Elohim” has been translated as “God.” But “Elohim” means Mighty One(s), while ghodh (or ghadh) means: union, even sexual union (to mate). The original meaning and concept of “Elohim” and “God” differ totally, especially because of the latter’s carnal or sensual meaning.

Such then was the spirit of paganism which started creeping in at Alexandria in the 2^nd century and which finally took over at Rome in the 4^th century. From there syncretistic mixed religion spread to Europe where it took a few more centuries for it to become further mixed with the pagan elements of our Germanic (Teutonic) ancestors.

If the Teutonic pagans called all their idols by the generic name “gott” or “god,” shall we continue to call the One that we love by the same generic name-title, or name? Why do we not translate the title Elohim (or El or Eloah) with its proper meaning: Mighty One? Also, in those places where “God” has become a substitute name for “YHWH,” shall we continue to invite the wrath of Elohim by doing this?

He has commanded us that we should not destroy His Name (Deut12:3 and 4). He is sorely displeased with those who have forgotten His Name for Baal (Jeremiah 23:27), remembering that Baal rally was the Sun-deity. “Therefore My people shall know My Name” (Isaiah 52:6). “YHWH’s voice cries to the city – wisdom shall see Your Name” (Micah 6:9).

“For Elohim will save Zion… and those who love His Name shall dwell in it” (Psalm 69:35-36). Also read Isaiah 56:6-7. If we love Him, we will love His Name. If we love His Name, we will not destroy it (Deut 12:3-4), we will not forget it (Jeremiah 23:27), we will not substitute it with anything else, let alone substitute it with a title, a generic name, or a name, which had been used for a pagan deity (Exodus 23:13).

Also, and even more applicable to this present study, we will stop substituting His Name with Baal (Jeremiah 23:27 and Hos 2:16) – that great Sun-deity, also known as Bel, who was the primary deity of Babylon – whether “Baal” applies to the name of the Sun-deity, or whether “Baal” is merely used as a title. We are to stop substituting His Name with anything that pertains to a Sun-deity, or even only a title with an idolatrous origin, notwithstanding attempts to justify the “changed meaning of the word.”

There is not a single text in all Scripture which prohibits us from calling Him by His Name. They called upon His Name right back in Gen 4:26. Abram called upon His Name in Gen 12:8 and 13:4, and as “Abraham” again in Gen 21:33. Abraham called the place in Moria “YHWH Yireh” (Gen 22:14). Isaac called upon the Name YHWH (Gen 26:25). Jacob used the Name (Gen 28:16). Leah used it (Gen 29:33 and 35). Moses proclaimed the Name of YHWH (Deut 32:3). David declared YHWH’s Name (Psalm 22:22), and so did our Messiah (Heb 2:12, John 17:6 &26). Finally, Yehoshua promised to do it again (John 17:26) – which you and I are now experiencing!

(Article from a book called: "Come Out of Her My People" by Chris Koster)