Is The KJV Bible the Word of the Almighty?

 When it comes to a belief system that is based on the writings of a Higher Power, the Almighty Himself, we desire to follow His writings alone. But are the writings of the Almighty still His writings when it has been edited and changed by men? Certainly not, in fact, it then becomes the writings of man instead and cannot be trusted as the writings or Word of the Almighty at all any more.

Many Churches and Christians all claim that the King James Bible is the authoritative Scriptures and the Word of the Almighty. They claim that it is by far the best and most accurate English translation of the original Scriptures and that it can be trusted and used as a reference for sound Scriptural doctrine. But is this true? Is the KJV an accurate account or translation of the original Scriptures?

The only way to answer these questions is to actually compare it to the original, or oldest manuscripts in existence today. For the “Old Testament” this is quite easy as the Hebrew text has been preserved from generation to generation and is 100% perfect (this is discussed below). Anyone who can read Hebrew, can therefore, easily compare the KJV or any other translation to the Hebrew text.

The “New Testament” is however a little harder, as the original Scriptures were destroyed or are being kept hidden. The Church claims that the “New Testament” was originally written in Greek, whereas all the facts and evidence point to a Hebrew original (but denied by the Church). This is however a topic on its own which I have covered in a previous post. There are however, ways to identify errors in translation. We do have the very early Greek manuscripts, the Aramaic text and we can compare the teachings to the Hebrew Tanakh (Old Testament) and we know that the Creator is not a liar that He should give instructions to last for 4,000 years and then change His mind.

Let us start with comparing the KJV with the Hebrew Tanakh (Old Testament)

The “Old Testament” of the KJV Bible is admittedly more accurate than the “New Testament” of the KJV Bible. This is because the “Old Testament” is somewhat based on the Hebrew Tanakh, where the “New Testament” is based on the Greek manuscripts which are not very reliable at all (I will explain this in more detail below). There are however still major errors in the KJV’s “Old Testament.”

Firstly, the term “Old Testament” is an incorrect term and is NOT at all Scriptural. Marcion, who is one of the early church fathers, coined the terms Old and New Testament. BUT: It is written that YHWH would bring a Renewed Covenant to His people and therefore the duty was on His people to extend the invitation of the Kingdom of Elohim to the rest of the world. By replacing the word “Covenant” with “Testament” Marcion and other pagan theologians wrestled Jeremiah 31:31-34 away from the foundational teachings of Y’hoshua and the Schlichim (taught ones). Most Christians had no access to the Tanakh (Hebrew Scriptures) and would not have know that Brit Chadashah means “RENEWED Covenant” and that Mashiyach would come to write Torah (Law) upon the hearts of his followers. By replacing the word “covenant” with “testament” and the word “renewed” with the word “new”, Marcion theologically divided the Messiah and his followers away from YHWH the Father and turned him into a self sustained deity that opposed the “Old Testament.” Everyone whoever used the terms “Old and New Testament” can thank Marcion the heretic for implanting such contrary values against the Unified and Eternal Word of the Living Almighty.

Polycarp, referred to Marcion as “the firstborn of the devil.” But, Marcion’s “judenrein” (Jew-free, also a well known phrase of Hitler) all-Gentile churches became very popular among early Gentile Christians, and one of the largest Christian denominations on Earth. Marcion was the inventor and/or the major contributor to dispensationalism, supercessionism, and replacement theology – all of which are altogether unscriptural and extremely popular among the vast majority of Christians today, preached in nearly every church.

The Name of the Almighty

The entire Scripture is full of how important and Set-Apart the Name of the Almighty is. It even goes as far as to say that there is no other name by which we can be saved. The Hebrew Tanakh has the Name of the Almighty written more than 6,000 times.

Now if the King James Translation, or any other translation, is truthful and correct, then it too must have the Name, or at least a transliteration (you can never translate a name) of the Name of the Almighty in the same places as those of the original Hebrew Tanakh. If it does not, then it is not the Word of the Almighty any more but rather the word of evil and corrupt men. The Word of the Almighty says that we are not allowed to add to or remove from what is originally written (Deut 4:2). It is also one of the Ten Commandments that we are not to bring His Name to naught.

Now if you have a look at the Hebrew Tanakh, you will not have to look very far to find the Name of the Almighty. The Name of the Almighty looks like this, “יהוה“, but the first thing you notice when you see His Name, is that it is not an English Name, but rather a Hebrew Name.

Now when you do a comparison between the Hebrew Scriptures and the KJV translation, you will see that almost every place that the Name of the Almighty is written, the KJV translation uses the word “LORD.” Now is the Name of the Almighty in English, “LORD”? Is the word “LORD” even a name at all? A little research will tell you that it is not a name at all, but a title that is also given to many men too and has a very dodgy pagan origin, where it actually originates from the name of a pagan deity.

So we can already see that the KJV translation has taken the most important Name in the existence of the Universe, the only Name by which we can be saved, out of its translation and replaced it with something that is hated by the Almighty. Is this not taking away from the Word which is forbidden by the Almighty Himself?

God

And what about the name “God”? Once again, the word “God” was not a name at all, but is rather a term used by other pagan beliefs to refer to their own deity. It later on became a name given to a specific pagan deity. Now ask yourself the following question, “can the Almighty be referred to by the same title that originated from the title for pagan deities?”

The Hebrew Scriptures have the word “Elohim” (Mighty One) in the places where the KJV translation has the word “God.” Once again, the KJV is not a correct translation here, where the translators placed their own words that do not mean the same.

In fact, there is a mention of “God” or “Gawd” in the Hebrew Scriptures, “But you are those who forsake יהוה (YHWH), who forget My set-apart mountain, who prepare a table for Gad (Gawd, God), and who fill a drink offering for Meni” (Isaiah 65:11).

Wow, the Scriptures actually say that those who follow after “God” (who is the pagan deity of good fortune) are those who forsake the Almighty. This is not just a translation error, but rather a direct contradiction of the Word of the Almighty. It is also written, “And in all that I have said to you take heed. And make no mention of the name of other mighty ones, let it not be heard from your mouth” (Exodus 23:13).

Let us look at some more errors

There are some more errors in the KJV’s “Old Testament” but none that are as critical as the errors spoken of above but, they are however still errors and are not Scriptural and changes the meaning of the Almighty's Word.

Eze 20:25 (KJV) Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they should not live;”

Eze 20:25 (Original) “And I also gave them up to laws that were not good, and right-rulings by which they would not live”

Here the KJV suggests that the Almighty gave the evil statutes to the people, where the original text says that He gave them up to the laws that the people turned to on there own.

There are many more differences between the KJV and the Hebrew text, but I am not going to post every single one of them here as we get the idea and it would be a lot of reading.

Now what about the Brit Chadashah (Renewed Covenant) (New Testament)

Every single scholar of the “KJV New Testament” agrees that it is based on the Greek manuscripts which they ignorantly believe to be the original manuscripts.

The KJV “New Testament” translation has MANY more differences and errors in it compared to its “Old Testament” translation. This is because its “Old Testament” is based, somewhat, on the original Hebrew, where the “New Testament” is based on many many Greek manuscripts (about 13,000) that all differ from one another. The problem with this is that the Greek is not the original as the Renewed Covenant was not originally written in Greek, but rather in Hebrew.

Let us have a closer look at these Greek manuscripts:

Both the Hebrew Torah and the “New Testament” contain approximately the same number of words. Which would you expect to be more successful in preserving the accuracy of a text?... The Christian New Testament, for several reasons of course.

Firstly, the Christian “New Testament” is about 1700 (or even more) years younger than the Torah. Secondly, the Christians haven’t gone through nearly as much exile and dislocation as the Jews. Thirdly, Christianity has always had a central authority (the Vatican) to ensure the "accuracy" of their text.

What are the results? The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible, a book written to prove the validity of the New Testament, says: “A study of 150 Greek [manuscripts] of the Gospel of Luke has revealed more than 30 000 different readings… It is safe to say that there is not one sentence in the New Testament in which the [manuscript] is wholly uniform.”

Other scholars report there are some 200 000 variants in the existing manuscripts of the New Testament, representing about 400 variant readings, which cause doubt about textual meaning; 50 of these are of great significance which have contradictory meanings to one another.

So how can we know which one, if any, is the correct one? Which one, if any, can we rely on to be the truth?

The Renewed Covenant is where the testimony and fulfillment of the prophecy of the Messiah is recorded. Let us have a look at the verse which speaks of the giving of the Name of the Messiah when He was born, “And she shall give birth to a Son, and you shall call His Name יהושע (Y’hoshua) for He shall save His people from their sins” (Mat 1:21). Now the KJV has the same statement but has the name “Jesus” as the name of the Messiah.

The question we need to ask ourselves, if we want to be honest, is if the KJV and all the other English Bibles that have the name of the Messiah as “Jesus” is correct. If so, then the name “Jesus” has to mean something like “for He shall save His people from their sins” as the verse implies.

In order to determine the meaning of the name “Jesus”, we need to go to its origin and find its meaning. Every single scholar admits the fact that the name “Jesus” comes from the Greek “Iesous” which once again originates from paganism, and NOT from the Hebrew Y’hoshua. I have covered this topic in much more detail in a previous post.

The Name Y’hoshua means “YHWH is our salvation” which fits one hundred percent with what is written in Matthew 1:21.

This difference is a major error that is absolutely the opposite of the Will and the Word of the Almighty. 

What about the name “Christ”?

Here is another example of a word being substituted by another that has the total opposite meaning as to what it should be. The Greek text has the word “Messias” for the word “anointed one” in John 1:41 and John 4:25. Why then does the KJV and other English translations have the Greek word “Christos” all the other times where the word “anointed one” appears?

Why does the KJV Bible use the Greek word “Messias” which is a valid Greek word that means “anointed one” in only a very few places, and the Greek word “Christos”, which does not have the exact same meaning, in the rest of the places? One must once again look for the origin of the word “Christos” from which the title “Christian originates from. If you start investigating the origin of the word “Christos” you will quickly find that it comes from “Chrestos” (the Sun-deity Osiris). Read here to learn more on this topic.

Other Errors

There are many other major errors and additions into the Christian Bible that do not even exist in the oldest Greek manuscripts, never mind the original writings. Some of these are, for example, John 7: 53 – 8:11 where it speaks of a woman caught in adultery that was brought to the Messiah. This event never happened and does not appear in the Aramaic text which is much, much older than the Greek, it is not even found in the earliest Greek manuscripts either. This portion was inserted many years later after the original writing of John. And yet, a large portion of the Christian faith is based on this small piece of writing.

How many times have you heard or even yourself quoted the phrase, “He who is without sin, cast the first stone”? This section is NOT Scriptural at all and cannot be found anywhere else in Scripture. Why was it added? In order to justify that adultery is okay and easily forgivable… do yourself a favor and go see what the Almighty thinks of adultery, and then see if the Messiah agrees with His Father on this point in this section.

Another major error in the KJV Bible that is not found in any other English Bible, even though they are also based on the Greek manuscripts, is found in Acts 12:4.

KJV Bible: "And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people"

Better Translation: "And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Passover to bring him forth to the people"

Here is a major error that does not even match any of the Greek manuscripts at all. The Greek word used for “Passover” is “pascha”. Every other English translation of the Bible has the word “Passover” here. It is only the KJV that has perverted it and used the word “Easter” instead of “Passover”. Now why did the translators do that? And is it correct? If not, then it is not an accurate translation and NOT the Word of the Almighty, but rather the word of men instead.

Easter is the Saxon's fertility deity called “Eostre”. Now the Passover is a testimony of the Messiah Himself. It is by His blood that we are passed over by the Messenger of death. To substitute this wonderful testimony of our Beloved Messiah, with the celebrations of an evil pagan deity that the Almighty hates, is pure evil. I would have no problem with burning a book that does such a thing.

If you would like to know more about Easter… then click here

Another major addition is that of Mark 16:9-20. If you compare it with that of the oldest Greek manuscripts, you will notice that it does not exist until the more modern Greek manuscripts.

Here is another example of a translation error proving that the translator did not have any knowledge of the Scriptures at all.

Hebrews 4:8-9

KJV Bible: "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God"

Better Translation: "For if Joshua (or rather Y’hoshua) had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a keeping of a Sabbath to the people of Elohim"

But even the Greek word for this "rest" is "sabbatismos", which means "Sabbath keeping".

This verse above actually proves two very important points. Firstly, the translator was not very well versed in the Scriptures at all. He did not know of the second point which is that “Joshua’s”  name in the Hebrew Tanakh is actually spelled as “יהושע” which is the exact same spelling and pronunciation of the Name as that of the Messiah, which is pronounced as Y’hoshua. The above verse is speaking of Y’hoshua son of Nun, where the translator ignorantly put in what he believed to be “Jesus”.

There are so many other errors in the KJV “New Testament” that it would take a very long time to record them here.

There are also many words that have been changed that originate from paganism rather than from the original writings, some of these words and names are, “Christ, holy, grace, glory, church and even the cross” which are all an abomination to the Almighty.

How many errors can be found in the Hebrew Torah?

 

Now for interest sake, we had a look at how many Greek variations existed in the “New Testament” above. Now if we are to compare the Greek “New Testament” with that of the Hebrew Torah, we can start to see which one is the most accurate of the two. Keeping in mind that the Greek “New Testament” contains over 200 000 different variations.

The Hebrew Torah contains approximately the same number of words as the “New Testament.” How many letters are there in the Hebrew Torah? There are 304 805 letters (or approximately 79 000 words).

If you were to guess, how many letters of these 304 805 do you think are in question (or questionable)? (most people guess anywhere from 25 to 1 000 letters.)

Maintaining the accuracy of any document as ancient and as large as the Torah is very challenging even under the best of circumstances.

But, consider that throughout history, Jewish communities were subject to widespread persecutions and exile. Over the last 2000 years, Jews have been spread to the four corners of the world, from Yemen to Poland, from Australia to Alaska.

Other historical factors make the accurate transmission of the Torah all the more difficult. For example, the destruction of the Temple 1900 years ago saw the dissolution of the Sanhedrin, the Jewish central authority which traditionally would unify the Jewish people in the case of any disagreements.

Let’s investigate the facts as we have them today. If we collect the oldest Torah scrolls and compare them, we can see if any garbling exist, and if so, how much.

The fact is, that after all the trials and tribulations, communal dislocations and persecutions, only the Yemenite Torah scrolls contain any difference from the rest of world Jewry. For hundreds of years, the Yemenite community was not part of the global checking system, and a total of nine letter-differences are found in their scrolls.

These are all spelling differences. In no case do they change the meaning of the word. For example, how would you spell the word “colour”? in America, it’s spelled C-O-L-O-R. But in England (and South Africa), it’s spelled with a “u”, C-O-L-O-U-R.

Such is the nature of the few spelling differences between Torah scrolls today. The results over thousands of years are remarkable. And these differences are only found in the Yemenite Torah Scrolls.

The Torah has nine spelling variants – with absolutely no effect on the meaning of the words. The Christian Bible has over 200 000 variants and in 400 instances the variants change the meaning of the TEXT.

These letters of the Hebrew Torah were employed by the Almighty in creating the world, and it is through them that He sustains it. The deletion of even one letter of this sustaining force therefore threatens the existence of the world.

Carefully guarding the words of the Torah has been a Jewish priority throughout the centuries.

Writing a Torah Scroll

To eliminate any chance of human error, the Talmud enumerates more than 20 factors mandatory for a Torah scroll to be considered “kosher”. This is the Torah’s built-in security system. Should any one of these factors be lacking, it does not possess the sanctity of a Torah scroll, and is not to be used for a public Torah reading.

The meticulous process of hand-copying a scroll takes about 2000 hours (a full-time job for one year). Throughout the centuries, Jewish scribes have adhered to the following guidelines:

• A Torah Scroll is disqualified if even a single letter is added.
• A Torah Scroll is disqualified if even a single letter is deleted.
• The scribe must be a learned, pious Jew, who has undergone special training and certification.
• All materials (parchment, ink, quill) must conform to strict specifications, and be prepared specifically for the purpose of writing a Torah scroll.
• The scribe may not write even one letter into a Torah scroll by heart. Rather, he must have a second, kosher scroll opened before him at all times.
• The scribe must pronounce every word out loud before copying it from the correct text.
• Every letter must have sufficient white space surrounding it. If one letter touched another in any spot, it invalidates the entire scroll.
• If a single letter was so marred that it cannot be read at all, or resembles another letter (whether the defect is in the writing, or is due to a hole, tear or smudge), this invalidates the entire scroll. Each letter must be sufficiently legible so that even an ordinary schoolchild could distinguish it from other, similar letters.
• The scribe must put precise spaces between words, so that one word will not look like two words, or two words look like one word.
• The scribe must not alter the design of the sections, and must conform to particular line-lengths and paragraph configurations.

A Torah scroll in which any mistake has been found, cannot be used, and must be fixed within 30 days, or buried.

Which one can then be considered the Word of the Almighty?

Now the Christian church is based mostly on the supposed teachings of “Paul”. The Church claims that Paul taught that the “Gentile Believers” do not have to keep the Torah of the Almighty anymore. They claim that the Torah of the Almighty was nailed to the “cross” which is a gross perversion and is proof that they are totally ignorant of the Scriptures and the writings of Paul.

So let us see what “Paul” considers to be Scripture and what he teaches about it, “and that from a babe you have known the Set-apart Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for deliverance through belief in Messiah יהושע (Y’hoshua). All Scripture is breathed by Elohim and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for setting straight, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of Elohim might be fitted, equipped for every good work” (2 Tim 3:15-17)

Now what are these Set-apart Scriptures that he is speaking of in this verse? Did the “New Testament” exist when he wrote this letter? Is it even possible that he could be referring to the “New Testament” or even any of his own letters, which make up the majority of the “New Testament” as Scripture? Absolutely not!

Paul stated above to the people that from when they were very young, they have known the Set-apart Scriptures. He is referring to the Hebrew Tanakh which is the only book that can ever be considered as the Word of the Almighty. Let us have a look at another letter that Paul wrote, “For whatever was written before was written for our instruction, that through endurance and encouragement of the Scriptures we might have the expectation” (Rom 15:4).

Paul is once again making it very clear that the Hebrew Tanakh are the Scriptures and is there for our instruction. The fact of the matter is that the Scriptures (Hebrew Tanakh) teaches us how to love the Almighty, it also teaches us how to love one another. The Hebrew Tanakh teaches us who the Messiah is and also what His role and duty is, “יהושע (Y’hoshua) said to them, “Did you never read in the Scriptures, ‘The stone which the builders rejected has become the chief corner-stone. This was from יהוה (YHWH), and it is marvellous in our eyes?” (Mat 21:42). It teaches us everything we need to know in regards to Salvation and the forgiveness of sins.

Notice above how the Messiah Himself refers to the Hebrew Tanakh as “the Scriptures” and how it refers to Him. Here is another verse that shows the Messiah referring to the Hebrew Tanakh as the Scriptures, “And יהושע (Y’hoshua) answering, said to them, “You go astray, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of Elohim”” (Mat 22:29).

I could go on and quote all the places in the “New Testament” and all the people therein who testify that the Hebrew Tanakh is the Scriptures, but that would take too much time and space here.

The fact of the matter is that the “New Testament” is not considered to be Scripture at all, but is rather just a testimony of the fulfillment of prophecy and letters of encouragement to fellow believers, who have been scattered, for them to stay in the study of the Scriptures.

Therefore, the Word of the Almighty is the Hebrew Tanakh and the Hebrew Tanakh alone. Anyone who speaks otherwise is speaking evil and denying the Word of the Almighty.

And anyone who does not subject themselves to the Instruction of the Hebrew Tanakh does not love the Almighty and there is no truth in them.